TNPSC 2009 Questions & Answers
Exam:
TNPSC
Year:
2009
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1.
Which one of the following organisms are the cause of Acute Pancreatitis?
A
E.coli
B
Klebsiella
C
Staphylococci
D
None of these
Reference:
Pg.1896 Harrison 16/e.
2.
Peustow’s Operation is
A
Distal pancreatectomy
B
Distal Pancreaticojejunostomy
C
Lateral Pancreaticojejunostomy
D
Total Pancreatectomy
Reference:
Ref: Pg.1266 Schwartz 8/e.
3.
Management of health programmes need following four basic activities to achieve the pre-dtermined objectives. Identify the correct order in which they are implemented.
A
Planning, Communicating, Organising, Monitoring.
B
Organising, Planning, Communicating, Monitoring.
C
Planning, Monitoring, Organising, Communicating.
D
Planning, Organising, Communicating, Monitoring.
Reference:
Ref: Pg.723 Park 19/e.
4.
Sullivan’s Index measure the quantum of
A
Disability
B
Morbidity
C
Mortality
D
Fertility
Reference:
Pg. 24 Park 19/e.
5.
The continous scrutiny of the factors that determine the occurance and distribution of disease and other conditions of ill health is termed as
A
a. Survey
B
Surveillance
C
Monitoring
D
Evaluation
Reference:
Ref: Pg. 37 Park 19/e.
6.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A
chicken pox – Rubella
B
Measles – Kopliks spots
C
Mumps – Varicella
D
German measles – Rubeola.
Reference:
Ref: Pg. 128 Park 19/e.
7.
Prevalence of a disease is defined as
A
number of old and new cases present in a population during a given time
B
number of old cases present in a population during a given time
C
number of new cases present in a population during a given time.
D
none of these.
Reference:
Pg. 56 Park 19/e.
8.
’Secular Trend’ implies
A
changes in the occurrence of disease over a long period of time
B
changes in the occurrence of disease over a short period of time
C
changes in the occurrence of disease over different seasons of the year
D
none of these.
Reference:
Ref: Pg. 61 Park 19/e.
9.
Statistical average include all except
A
mean
B
mode
C
range
D
median
Reference:
Pg. 699,700 Park 19/e.
10.
In a Primary response to an Immune reaction , the first antibody to appear in the blood is
A
IgG type
B
IgA type
C
IgM type
D
none of these
Reference:
Pg. 134 Panicker.
11.
In India, which of the following committees recommended the establishment of Primary health centres at rural areas?
A
Mukherjee committee
B
Kartar Singh Committee
C
Bhore Committee
D
Shrivastava Committee
Reference:
Pg. 726 Park 19/e
12.
In India, Filariasis is caused by
A
W.bancrofti
B
Culex fasciatus
C
Mansonoides
D
Anopheles
Reference:
Pg. 220,221 Park 19/e.
13.
The selective inhibitors of Serotonin receptors like Sertraline are
A
less cardiotoxic than tricyclic antidepressants
B
more cadriotoxic than tricylcic antidepressants
C
likely to cause agranulocytosis more than clozapine
D
likely to be addiction prone
Reference:
Pg. 432, 433, 434 Goodman & Gilman 11/e.
14.
Identify the symptoms which are not present in Amphetamine induced Psychosis?
A
Affective flattening, alogia
B
Generally appropriate affect
C
Hyperactivity, Hypersexuality, and other sexual dysfunctions
D
Visual hallucinations
Reference:
15.
Appendicular Mass is treated by
A
Appendicectomy
B
Conservatively
C
Laproscopic Appendicectomy
D
Ultrasound guided aspiration
Reference:
1090 Bailey & Love 23/e.
16.
Commonest cause for Acute cholecystitis is
A
Calculous
B
Infection
C
Bile stasis
D
Starvation
Reference:
Ans. A Pg. 1199 Schwartz 8/e.
17.
Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of
A
Intermittant claudication
B
distal ischemia affecting the skin of the toes
C
arteriovenous fistula
D
diabetic neuropathy
Reference:
232 Bailey & Love 23/e
18.
Munchausen’s syndrome is
A
an endocrine disorder
B
a factitious disorder
C
a somatoform disorder
D
a sleep disorder
Reference:
Pg. 251 Davidson 20/e
19.
The capacity to formulate concepts and generalize them is called
A
Concretization in thinking
B
Abstract thinking
C
Delusional thinking
D
Rationalization
Reference:
20.
The percentage of Schizophrenic patients who commit suicide is approximately
A
one per cent
B
five per cent
C
ten per cent
D
twenty per cent.
Reference:
21.
Which of the following drugs is effective in Chlorpromazine induced Parkinsonism?
A
Trihexyphenidyl.
B
Selegiline
C
Bromocriptine
D
Levodopa & Carbidopa.
Reference:
22.
Budesonide is a/an
A
non – steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
B
high ceiling diuretic
C
inhalation corticosteroid for asthma
D
contraceptive.
Reference:
Pg. 208 KD Tripathi 5/e.
23.
Barbiturates exert the following actions except
A
anticonvulsant
B
analgesic
C
sedative
D
respiratory depression.
Reference:
358 KD Tripathi 5/e.
24.
Which of the following is also called British Anti – Lewisite?
A
EDTA
B
Dimercaprol
C
D- pencillamine
D
Succimer
Reference:
812 KD Tripathi 5/e.
25.
The proposed mechanism of action of Tricyclic antidepressants is that they
A
have intrinsic adrenergic activity
B
block adrenergic receptors
C
prevent the reuptake of synaptic neurotransmitters
D
can stimulate dopamine receptors.
Reference:
407 KD Tripathi 5/e.
26.
Lidocaine can be used in
A
Supraventicular tachycardia
B
Ventricular tachycardia
C
Both A and B
D
Neither A nor B
Reference:
Pg. 565 Davidson 20/e.
27.
The anti-tubercular drug which is not hepato-toxic is
A
Isoniazid
B
Rifampicin
C
Pyrazinamide
D
Ethambutol
Reference:
Pg. 700,701 KD. Tripathi 5/e.
28.
Metronidazole is used for
A
Round worm infestation
B
Hook work infestation
C
Kala-Azar
D
Giardiasis
Reference:
Pg.751 KD.Tripathi 5/e.
29.
Which of the following statements is false concerning Heparin?
A
it accelerates inhibition of thrombin
B
it is administered intravenously
C
it causes hemorrhage
D
it crosses the placental barrier
Reference:
562 KD Tripathi 5/e.
30.
Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of Gastric mucosal proton pump?
A
Carbenoxolone sodium
B
Sucralfate
C
Famotidine
D
Lansoprozole
Reference:
Pg. 593 KD Tripathi 5/e
31.
Renal Osteodystrophy is a disorder
A
associated with Type II autosomal recessive disorder
B
associated with skeletal deformities
C
associated with extensive bone turn over
D
associated with decrease in PTH.
Reference:
Pg. 490 Davidson 20/e
32.
Increased serum magnesium concentration has been observed in all of the following except
A
Lactation
B
Dehydration
C
Severe diabetic acidosis
D
Addison’s disease.
Reference:
33.
Clearance of substance depends on
A
its plasma concentration
B
its excretory rate
C
the renal plasma flow
D
all of these
Reference:
34.
Normal renal plasma flow in health adult averages about
A
125ml/min
B
200 ml/min
C
450ml/min
D
574 ml/min.
Reference:
The answer in Ganong 22/e Pg.704 is 700ml/min.
35.
Ammonia is formed by the kidney from
A
Glutamate
B
Aspartate
C
Glutamine
D
Aneurine
Reference:
Pg. 402 Chatterjea Biochemistry.
36.
In patients with renal failure, all the following are typically elevated in serum except
A
Urea, nitrogen
B
Phosphate
C
Creatinine
D
Albumin
Reference:
37.
In Hemolytic anemia, all of the following features are observed except
A
elevation of unconjugated bilirubin
B
presence of urine bilirubin
C
increased urobilinogen
D
increased fecal urobilinogen.
Reference:
Pg.292 Harper Biochemisty 20/e
38.
The enzyme involved in Porphyria Cutanea Tarda is
A
Uroporphyrogen decarboxylase
B
Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
C
Ferrochelatase
D
all of these
Reference:
Pg. 466 Chatterjea Biochemistry
39.
Which of the following is not a feature of Obstructive Jaundice?
A
clay coloured stools
B
increased excretion of urobilinogen in urine
C
increased level of conjugated bilirubin in blood
D
presence of bile salts in urine.
Reference:
Pg. 292 Harper 27/e
40.
In a case of Jaundice, there is no trace of pigments in urine. The most probable diagnosis is
A
Infectious hepatitis
B
Obstructive jaundice
C
Serum hepatitis
D
Hemolytic jaundice
Reference:
41.
Hydrogen ion secretion in the distal nephron is enhanced by all of the following except
A
Increase in the level of plasma aldosterone
B
hyperkalemia
C
metabolic acidosis
D
Respiratory acidosis
Reference:
42.
Which of the following has clearance equal to GFR?
A
Creatinine
B
Urea
C
Inulin
D
none of these
Reference:
Pg. 706 Ganong 22/e.
43.
Total vital capacity is decreased but times vital capacity is normal in
A
a. Bronchial asthma
B
b. Scoliosis
C
c. Chronic Bronchitis
D
d. all of these
Reference:
44.
Spirometer cannot measure
A
tidal volume
B
vital capacity
C
Expiratory reserve volume
D
Residual volume
Reference:
45.
For surfactant lining the alveoli all are true except
A
helps prevent alveolar collapse
B
is a mixture of protein and lipids
C
is decreased in hyaline membrane disease
D
is secreted by alveolar macrophages.
Reference:
Pg. 656 Ganong 22/e.
46.
Which is the immediate source of high energy phosphage in skeletal muscle?
A
Guanosine phosphate
B
Carbonyl phosphate
C
Creatine phosphate
D
Glycerophsophate
Reference:
Pg. 74 Ganong 22/e.
47.
Neurotransmitter released at the skeletal neurotransmitter junction is
A
Adrenaline
B
Noradrenaline
C
Acetyl choline
D
Atropine
Reference:
Pg. 117 Ganong 22/e.
48.
Idioventricular Rhythm is usually
A
faster than sinus rhythm
B
slower than sinus rhythm
C
originates in the AV node
D
originates in the Bundle of His
Reference:
49.
Force of contraction of the heart
A
increases with sympathetic stimulation
B
decreases by atheletic training
C
is unaffected by nutrition
D
decreases by increased filling.
Reference:
Pg. 573 Ganong 22/e.
50.
Cardiac index is the ratio of
A
cardiac output and body weight
B
Cardiac output and body surface area
C
Cardiac output and work of heart
D
Stroke volume and surface area.
Reference:
Pg. 571 Ganong 22/e.
51.
The ideal fluid to be administered in Hypovolaemic shock is
A
Blood
B
Plasma
C
Normal saline
D
Ringer lactate
Reference:
52.
Antibodies most commonly found in Perinious anemia is
A
Anti – Intrinsic antibody
B
Anti – nuclear antibody
C
anti – parietal cell antibody
D
none of these
Reference:
Pg. 496 Ganong 22/e.
53.
Conjugated Hyperbilirubinemia is seen in
A
Gilbert syndrome
B
Crigler – Najjar syndrome
C
Down syndrome
D
Dubin – Johnson syndrome.
Reference:
Pg. 888 Robbins 7/e.
54.
In an unconscious patient due to head injury, or alcoholic intoxication, or drug abuse, when clinical assessment of abdomen injury may not be such useful, the ideal investigation is
A
Ultrasound scan abdomen.
B
CT scan abdomen
C
Peritoneal lavage
D
MRI.
Reference:
55.
Treatment of choice for Renal Cell Carcinoma is
A
high voltage radiotherapy
B
therapeutic embolisation of renal artery
C
radical nephrectomy
D
renal vein ligation and chemotherapy.
Reference:
Pg. 542 Harrison 16/e
56.
Ectopic hormone is produced as tumor marker in
A
Ca. Lung
B
Ca. Breast
C
Ca. Kidney
D
in all of these.
Reference:
Pg. 439 Harrison 16/e
57.
Raspberry tumor is
A
Cavernous hemangioma
B
Umbilical adenoma
C
Pigmented basal cell carcinoma
D
none of these
Reference:
Pg. 381 Clinical Surgery – S.Das 5/e
58.
Endogenous water production during oxidation of ingested food is
A
280 ml
B
500 ml
C
800 ml
D
1200 ml
Reference:
59.
All of the following take part in formation of triangle of CALOT except
A
Cystic artery
B
Common bile duct
C
Cystic duct
D
Common hepatic duct.
Reference:
60.
Exceptions to Courvoisier’s Law include all the following except
A
Double impaction
B
Subhepatic gall bladder
C
Double pathology
D
Carcinoma stomach with secondaries in Porta hepatis
Reference:
61.
Which of the following contains Reference Protein?
A
Milk
B
Egg
C
Meat
D
Pulses
Reference:
Pg.500 Park 19/e.
62.
In Shakir tape, the yellow band is
A
10.5 – 11.5cm
B
11.5cm – 12.5 cm
C
12.5cm – 13.5 cm
D
13.5 cm – 14.5 cm
Reference:
Achar's Pediatrics
63.
All are true in Klinfelter’s syndrome except
A
poorly developed secondary sexual characters
B
Gynacomastia
C
Small testes and male infertility
D
absence of X chromosomes(45 X0)
Reference:
Pg. 2215 Harrison 16/e
64.
All are true of Spider naevi, except
A
found below the nipple level
B
found in pregnancy
C
found in liver disease
D
consists of central arteriole with radiating small vessels.
Reference:
Pg. 1810 Harrison 16/e
65.
Following associations are correct except
A
Iodine defeiciency – endemic goiter
B
Flouride excess – Dental caries
C
Kesman disease – Selenium responsive cardiomypopathy
D
Acrodermatitis enteropathica – zinc deficiency.
Reference:
Pg. 494, 511, 582 Park 19/e.
66.
All statements below are true except
A
a. in gout great toe is affected in early stages
B
b. in psoraisis distal joints are affected
C
c. in ankylosing spondylitis larger joints are affected early
D
d. in rheumatoid arthritis, proximal metacarpophalangeal joints are affected early.
Reference:
All the options seems to be correct. Need ur help.
67.
Acute ascending paralysis is seen in all except
A
Diabetes
B
Porphyria
C
infectious mononucleosis
D
Diphtheria
Reference:
68.
Parkinosonism features occur in all conditions except
A
Hepatolenticular degeneration
B
Hemochromatosis
C
Jakob – Creutzfeldt disease
D
Friedreich’s ataxia
Reference:
69.
Recognised clinical features of anorexia nervosa include the following except
A
ammenorhea
B
Hyporension
C
Lanugo hair
D
Tachycardia.
Reference:
Pg.431 Harrison 16/e
70.
Downs syndrome is due to
A
Trisomy 9
B
Trisomy 13
C
Trisomy 18
D
Trisomy 21
Reference:
71.
Acanthocytosis of peripheral smear is a feature of
A
Thalassemia trait
B
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
C
Abeta lipoproteinemia
D
Uremia
Reference:
Pg. 608 Harrison 16/e
72.
Which of the following is not rachitic stigma?
A
Bow leg
B
Enlarged wrist
C
Costochondral beading
D
Hutchinson’s teeth.
Reference:
73.
The following statements regarding inactivated polio vaccine are true except
A
it is a killed vaccine
B
it is administered parenterally
C
it affords protection to non-vaccinated people
D
it is called Salk vaccine.
Reference:
74.
Which of the following groups of neonates is at increased risk for early hypocalcemia?
A
Low birth weight
B
Premature
C
Diabetic mother
D
Bottle fed
Reference:
B & C seems to be correct.
75.
Common causes of neonatal hepatitis include all of the following except
A
Hepatitis B
B
Hepatitis A
C
Rubella
D
Herpes simplex.
Reference:
76.
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is present in the following conditions except
A
Dubin – Johnson syndrome
B
Criggler – Najjar syndrome
C
Gilber syndrome
D
Hemolytic Uremic syndrome
Reference:
Pg. 888 Robbins 7/e.
77.
The daily requirement of Vitamin D is
A
400 IU
B
200 IU
C
50 IU
D
125 IU
Reference:
Pg. 488 Park 19/e
78.
Whole cow’s milk as an infant feeding always supplies more than adequate amount of
A
Protein
B
Iron
C
Linoleic acid
D
Vitamin C
Reference:
Pg. 430 Park 19/e
79.
Criterion for Low birth weight baby is
A
small for dates
B
always preterm
C
weight less than 2.5 kg
D
require special care.
Reference:
Pg. 427 Park 19/e
80.
Bag and mask ventilation is instituted in all Asphyxiated Babies except in
A
no respiration
B
heart rate below 100/min.
C
thin meconium stained liquor
D
diaphragmatic hernia
Reference:
81.
The most immediate complication that heralds death in Acute Myocardial Infarction is
A
Acute left ventricular failure
B
Ventricular fibrillation
C
Ventricular ectopics
D
All of these
Reference:
Pg. 597 Davidson 20/e.
82.
Sign(s) suggestive of Post – Column involvement is/are
A
joint sense alone
B
vibrations sense alone
C
position sense alone
D
all of these
Reference:
83.
Which one of the following is not useful in differentiating infranuclear from supranuclear VII cranial nerve palsy?
A
Deviation of angle of mouth to same side.
B
Loss of frontal rugosity
C
Bell’s phenomenon
D
Emotional test.
Reference:
84.
The cause of vomiting and headache in Tuberculous meningitis is
A
Vascular shock
B
Raised intracranial tension
C
Toxemia
D
Tuberculoma of Brain.
Reference:
85.
In Upper motor neuron lesion, plantar response may be negative when there is
A
Spinal shock
B
Cortical shock
C
Both A and B
D
none of these
Reference:
86.
In Lathyrism, the patient has
A
motor paraplegia alone
B
motor and sensory paraplegia
C
paraplegia with bladder and bowel involvement.
D
all of these
Reference:
87.
Compressive myelopathy is suggested by
A
a. asymmetric onset and progressive course
B
b. definitive upper level of sensory involvement.
C
c. non-selective tract involvement
D
d. all of these.
Reference:
88.
Diseases for which a blood donor should be screened are all of the following except
A
a. Kala-azar.
B
b. AIDS
C
c. Hepatitis – B
D
d. Malaria
Reference:
89.
The most important factor in the aetiology of Diabetic foot is
A
Neurogenic
B
Vascular
C
Neurogenic and vascular
D
infection
Reference:
90.
In patients with Diabetes mellitus, which one of the following occurs frequently?
A
Chronic narrow angle glaucoma
B
Congenital glaucoma
C
Secondary glaucoma
D
Closed angle glaucoma
Reference:
91.
At birth, Umbilical cord contains
A
two umbilical veins
B
vitelline duct
C
ductus venosus
D
two umbilical arteries
Reference:
92.
The single gene defect causing deficiency of a single enzyme is
A
Trisomy
B
Klinefelter’s syndrome
C
Turner’s syndrome
D
Alkaptonuria
Reference:
Pg. 167,168 Robbins 7/e.
93.
The following statements concerning the Stomach are true except
A
a. fundus is supplied by short gastric arteries
B
b. the lesser curvature contains the right and left gastroepiploic arteries.
C
c. it develops from foregut
D
d. lesser sac lies posteriorly.
Reference:
94.
The mesonephric duct in female gives rise to
A
Uterus
B
Vagina
C
Uterine tubes
D
none of these
Reference:
95.
Lesser omentum connects
A
a. Liver and stomch
B
b. Liver, gall bladder and stomach
C
c. Liver, stomach and duodenum
D
d. Liver, stomach, duodenum and transverse colon.
Reference:
96.
The floor of the inter – sigmoid recess contains
A
Sigmoid colon
B
inter iliac artery
C
left ureter
D
left vasdeferens
Reference:
97.
The length of the first, second , third and fourth parts of duodenum are
A
a. 5cm, 8 to 10cms, 10cm, 2.5cm.
B
b. 2.5cm, 5cm, 10cm, 2.5cm.
C
c. 2.5cm, 8 to 10 cm, 5cm, 10cm.
D
d. 10cm, 8 to 10cm, 2.5cm, 5cm.
Reference:
98.
Sphicnter anii externus is
A
made up of smooth muscle fibres only
B
supplied by superior rectal nerves
C
has superficial and deep parts
D
forms boundary of ischiorectal fossa.
Reference:
Forms medial wall of Ischiorectal fossa, with Levator ani.
99.
The testis descends into the scrotum during
A
a. 3rd month of IUL
B
b. 5th month of IUL
C
c. 7th month of IUL
D
d. 8th month of IUL
Reference:
– The answer is 9th month.
100.
Uterine artery is an branch of
A
a. common iliac artery
B
b. external iliac artery
C
c. internal iliac artery
D
d. abdominal aorta
Reference:
101.
Ameoboma refers to
A
colonic tumor
B
Profuse granulation tissue
C
Typhoid nodule
D
none of these
Reference:
Pg. 359 Davidson 20/e.
102.
Psuedomyxoma peritonei arises from which of the following tumors?
A
Mucinous cystadenoma ovary
B
Endometrial adenocarcinoma
C
Serous cyst adenocarcinoma ovary
D
Clear cell adenocarcinoma.
Reference:
Pg. 1097 Robbins 7/e.
103.
Kimmelsteil – Wilsons lesion is diagnostic of
A
benign hypertension
B
Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
C
Amyloidosis of kidney
D
Mlaignant hypertensive change in kidney.
Reference:
Pg. 992 Robbins 7/e.
104.
Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of
A
a. Adrenal cortex
B
b. Adrenal medulla
C
c. Pituitary
D
d. Parathyroid
Reference:
Pg. 745 Bailey & Love 23/e.
105.
Kartagener’s syndrome results from
A
Granulomatous inflammatory process
B
Recurrent Staphylococcal infection
C
Defect in ciliary structure and function
D
Mechanical factors due to situs inversus.
Reference:
Pg. 727 Robbins 7/e.
106.
Which one of the following Pneumoconiosis has increased risk of developing tuberculosis ?
A
Silicosis
B
Beryliosis
C
Asbestosis
D
Anthracosis.
Reference:
Pg. 735 Robbins 7/e.
107.
The Classic diagnostic histology of Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis includes all except
A
Destroyed Glomeruli
B
Infiltration of Glomeruli with neutrophils and monocytes
C
Normal endothelial cells
D
Crescents in the Glomeruli.
Reference:
Pg. 974, 975 Robbins 7/e
108.
Lepromatous Leprosy are all except
A
lesions contain large aggregates of lepra cells
B
patients lack B cell mediated immunity
C
patients are les infectious than those with tuberculoid form.
D
patients show a strongly postitive 48 hour Lepromin skin test.
Reference:
109.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A
abl – CML.
B
N myc – Small cell carcinoma of lung.
C
L – myc – Carcinoma colon.
D
ras – Neuroblastoma.
Reference:
110.
The anticoagulant of choice for ESR estimation (Westergren’s method)is
A
Double oxalate
B
3 – 8% sodium citrate
C
Heparin
D
EDTA.
Reference:
Wintrobe's method - EDTA used.
111.
Serial Interval is defined as
A
the gap between the onset of primary case and the secondary case
B
the gap between the receipt of infection and maximum infectivity of host.
C
the gap between the onset of the disease and the cure of the disease.
D
none of these.
Reference:
Pg. 94 Park 19/e.
112.
Syndromic approach is used for which of the following?
A
a. ARI control
B
b. STD control
C
c. Diarrheal control
D
d. Leprosy control.
Reference:
Pg. 358 Park 19/e.
113.
We have four National Health Programmes. Identify the correct order in which they were started.
A
NMEP, NFCP, RCH, RNTCP.
B
NFCP, NMEP, RNTCP, RCH
C
NMEP, RNTCP, RCH, NFCP.
D
NFCP, RCH, NMEP, RNTCP.
Reference:
( NFCP – 1955, NMEP – 1958, RNTCP – 92, RCH – 97).
114.
Hypokalemia occurs in
A
a. Pyloric obstruction
B
b. Continous saline infusion
C
c. Small bowel fistulae
D
d. All of these.
Reference:
115.
In India, the level of iodization fixed under the Prevention of Food Adulteration(PFA) Act , at the production point and the consumer level is
A
30 PPM and 15 PPM respectively.
B
20PPM and 10PPM respectively.
C
25 PPM and 15 PPM respectively
D
40 PPM and 20 PPM respectively.
Reference:
Pg 511 Park 19/e.
116.
Consider the following statements. Assertion (A) : Presence of Coliform organism are chosen as indicator of fecal pollution of water. Reason (R) : The colifom organisms are constantly present in great abundance in the human intestine. Of these statments:
A
Both (A) and (R) are true, but ( R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true,and ( R) is the correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Reference:
117.
Osteomyelitis of terminal phalanx may be sequel of
A
Acute paronychia
B
Chronic paronychia
C
Terminal pulp space infection.
D
Apical sublingual infection
Reference:
Pg.351 Apley ortho 8/e
118.
Which of the following is the least toxic Lead compound?
A
Lead arsenate
B
Lead oxide
C
Lead sulphide
D
Lead carbonate.
Reference:
119.
The sampling technique used in U.I.P and C.S.S.M coverage evaluation surveys is
A
Stratified sampling
B
Quota sampling
C
Multistage sampling
D
Cluster sampling.
Reference:
120.
In a Standard normal curve, the area between 2 standard deviations on either side of mean (X +/- 2 sigma) will include approximately
A
68% of the values in the distribution.
B
95% of the values in the distribution
C
99% of the values in the distribution
D
99.7% of the values in the distribution
Reference:
Pg. 702 Park 19/e.
121.
Acrodermatitis enteropathica is characterized by all of the following except
A
Chronic diarrhea
B
Denuded skin around mucocutaneous junction
C
Protein malabsorption
D
Zinc deficiency a possible aetiology
Reference:
Pg. 127 Davidson 20/e.
122.
Wide splitting of the second heart sound is noted all of the following except
A
a. Pulmonary stenosis
B
b. RBBB
C
c. Ebstein anomaly
D
d. Aortic stenosis.
Reference:
123.
Which is the commonest virus causing Acute Bronchiolitis in infancy?
A
Adenovirus
B
Rhinovirus
C
Respiratory Syncytial virus
D
Rota virus.
Reference:
Pg. 352 OPG 6/e.
124.
The commonest agent causing Acute Epiglottitis in a child is
A
Hemophilus influenza
B
Staphylococcus aureus
C
Streptococcus pyogenes
D
Sterptococcus pneumoniae.
Reference:
Pg. 339 OPG 6/e.
125.
The drug of choice to treat Trichuriasis is
A
Mebendazole
B
Pyrantel pamoate
C
Nidosamide
D
Diethyl carbamazine.
Reference:
Pg. 760 KD Tripathi
126.
The commonest cause of Hypertension in Children is
A
a. Coarctation of Aorta
B
b. Acute Glomerular nephritis
C
c. Essential hypertension
D
d. Pheochromocytoma.
Reference:
Pg. 433 OPG 6/e.
127.
The diagnosis of all intracranial lesions is made best by
A
X ray skull
B
Carotid angiogram
C
MRI
D
CT scan
Reference:
128.
Kayser – Fleischer ring in the Iris is pathognomonic of
A
Osteogenesis imperfecta
B
Wilson’s disease
C
Ehlers – Danlos syndrome
D
Hurler’s syndrome.
Reference:
129.
Automatisms are a characterstic feature of
A
a. Absence seizure
B
b. Generalised tonic clonic seizure
C
c. myoclonic seizure
D
d. Compex partial seizure
Reference:
130.
Which of the following can cause Thymic enlargement?
A
a. Teratoma
B
b. Leukemia
C
c. Lymphosarcoma
D
d. Hodgkins disease.
Reference:
131.
Ideally, iodine concentration in iodised common salt should be
A
15 PPM
B
20 PPM
C
25 PPM
D
30 PPM
Reference:
132.
The following investigation should urgently be done for a pneumonia patient except
A
X ray of chest PA view
B
Oxygen saturation of blood
C
Full Blood count (leucocyte, RBC)
D
ECG
Reference:
133.
When the diagnosis of Pneumothorax is confirmed, the most immediate procedure to be done is
A
chest drainage tube to be put in on right lower chest.
B
chest drainage tube to be put in upper chest.
C
strapping of right chest wall.
D
none of these.
Reference:
134.
In young patient , taking treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis, complains of blurred vision, one should
A
look for jaundice
B
stop one of the anti-tubercular drug
C
give corticosteroid
D
revise diagnosis
Reference:
135.
In a patient admitted with high fever, splenomegaly and dry cough, if the X ray chest shows military shadows, the most likely diagnosis is
A
Carcinomatosis Lymphangiosarcoma
B
Tropical Pulmonary eosinophilia
C
Pneumoconiosis
D
Miliary tuberculosis.
Reference:
Pg.257 OPG 6/e.
136.
Half of all adult population in which one of the following countries is infected with TB?
A
South Africa
B
India
C
Burma(Myanmar)
D
Malaysia
Reference:
137.
.In Pulmonary Tuberculosis, the sputum smear test positive for AFB when the bacterial concentration in sputum is
A
50,000 to 1,00,000 per mm
B
below 50,000 per mm
C
above 1,00,000 per mm
D
both A and C.
Reference:
138.
In Anginal Pectoris, which one of the following is not true?
A
Chest pain is localized on either side of chest
B
Pain is referable to neck, left arm
C
Does not exacerbate with chest wall movement
D
Sweating is present
Reference:
139.
In a young patient with stroke and hemiplegia, one should examine,
A
Lef vein for deep venous thrombosis
B
Heart for valvular disease
C
Pulse for irregular beats.
D
Both B and C.
Reference:
140.
Collapsing pulse is present when
A
pulse pressure is over 60 mmHg
B
systolic blood pressure is high
C
Diastolic pressure is low
D
all of these.
Reference:
141.
Which one of following statements about Cholera is false?
A
incubation period is only few hours
B
sudden onset of profuse diarrhea followed by vomiting
C
severe abdominal pain accompanying diarrhea
D
rapidly progressive metabolic acidosis.
Reference:
142.
Breat reconstruction following Mastectomy is best achieved by
A
a. Silastic implants with or without tissue expansion
B
b. Latissmus dorsi Myocutaneous flap.
C
c. Rectus abdominis Myocutaneous flap.
D
d. All of these.
Reference:
143.
The best shunt operation for portal hypertension is
A
Selective splenorenal shunt
B
Splenorenal shunt
C
Mesocaval shunt
D
Portocaval shunt.
Reference:
Pg. 941 Bailey & Love
144.
Best management option for elective treatment of Repeated Variceal Bleed in child is
A
Shunt operation
B
Devascularisation procedure
C
Repeated Sclerotherapy.
D
Sengstaken – Blackmore tube.
Reference:
Pg. 941 Bailey & Love
145.
A 10 year old boy with mild fever, suddenly develops severe pain in the right testis. What do you suspect the boy is suffering from?
A
Mumps orchitis
B
Acute Epididymo – orchitis
C
Torsion of testis
D
Teratoma of testes with sudden bleeding into the tumour
Reference:
146.
Best method of diagnosing Upper GI Hemorrhage is
A
a. Upper GI contrast study
B
b. Selective angiography
C
c. Esopahgogastroduodenoscopy.
D
d. Technitium Sulphur scan.
Reference:
147.
Rate of recurrence of ulcer is highest in
A
a. Vagotomy antrectomy
B
b. Highly selective vagotomy
C
c. Vagotomy apyloroplasty
D
d. Gastrectomy.
Reference:
148.
For ‘Strip test’ for sugar in urine, all of the following facts are true except
A
container contamination is absent
B
artifacts are excluded
C
drug interference is excluded
D
shelf – life of chemical is not a factor.
Reference:
149.
25 gram or 25 full chips of potato provides
A
a. 200 calories, 0 fat.
B
b. 200 calories, 1gm fat
C
c. 0 calorie, 200 gm fat
D
d. 100 calories, 100 gm fat
Reference:
150.
One tablespoonful of common salt provides
A
a. 2300 mgms of sodium
B
b. 2000 mgms of sodium
C
c. 1500 mgms of sodium
D
d. 1000 mgms of sodium.
Reference:
151.
Which of the following is NOT an inclusion body of RBCs?
A
Dohle body
B
Heinz body
C
Howell – Jolly body
D
Pappenheimer body.
Reference:
Pg. 665 Robbins.
152.
Screening of Buffy Coat Smear is useful in
A
L.E. Cell test.
B
Megaloblastic anemia
C
Sub – leukemic leukemia
D
all of these
Reference:
153.
Splenomegaly is usually found in all cases of Hemolytic anemia of many years duration except in
A
Thalassemia
B
Hereditary spherocytosis
C
G6PD deficiency
D
Sickle cell anemia.
Reference:
154.
Typical example of Functional disorder of platelets where there is defective aggregation of platelets is
A
Bernard – Soulier syndrome
B
Glanzmann’s thromasthenia
C
I.T.P
D
Essential thrombocythemia
Reference:
Pg. 653 Robbins
155.
Brown induration of lung is seen in
A
a. Miliary tuberculosis
B
b. Chronic tuberculosis
C
c. Hemochromatosis
D
d. Melanomatous Secondary deposit of lung.
Reference:
Pg. 715 Robbins
156.
The following are examples of Endogenous pigmentation except
A
Jaundice
B
Tatooing
C
Porphyria
D
Ochronosis
Reference:
157.
The main bactericidal substance of Eosinophils is
A
Lactoferrin.
B
Major Basic Protein
C
BPI
D
Lyzozyme
Reference:
158.
Commonest type of necrosis in Brain is
A
Coagulation necrosis
B
Caseous necrosis
C
Gangrenous necrosis
D
Liqufaction necrosis
Reference:
159.
Rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant tumor of
A
a. Bone
B
b. Smooth muscle
C
c. Lung
D
d. Striated muscle
Reference:
Pg. 1321 Robbins.
160.
The following are precancerous conditions except
A
Submucous fibrosis
B
Compound naevus
C
Fibrocystic disease of breast
D
Carcinoid tumor.
Reference:
161.
Prothromin time in obstructive jaundice
A
a. is normal
B
b. decreases
C
c. becomes normal after vitamin K injection
D
d. increases after Vitamin K injection
Reference:
Ans – Both A and C seems to be correct. Need your help. Ref: Pg. 1817 Harrison 16/e.
162.
Dubin – Johnson syndrome is caused by
A
a. defect in bilirubin uptake by liver
B
b. deficiency of UDP glucuronosyl transferase
C
c. defect in the hepatic secretion of conjugated bilirubin into bile.
D
d. hemolytic anemia
Reference:
Pg – 888 Robbins
163.
In liver cells, bilirubin is conjugated with
A
Cholic acid
B
Glycine
C
Glucuronic acid
D
Iduronic acid
Reference:
885 Robbins
164.
Increase in level of sodium levels leads to retention of
A
a. Potassium
B
b. Phosphate
C
c. Water
D
d. All of these
Reference:
165.
The most important buffer in the plasma is
A
Ammonia buffer
B
Bicarbonate buffer
C
Phosphate buffer
D
Protein buffer
Reference:
166.
Hemoglobin is a very good buffer because of
A
a. Histidine
B
b. Glycine
C
c. Lysine
D
d. Arginine
Reference:
Pg – 732 Ganong.
167.
Increase in ‘anion gap’ occurs in the following except
A
Uremia with retention of ‘fixed’acids
B
Ketotic states
C
Lactic acidosis
D
Hypoalbuminemia
Reference:
168.
Concerning fluid electroytes, it may be stated that
A
sodium is the principal extracellular cation
B
chloride and bicarbonate are the principal extracellular anions.
C
magnesium is the principal intracellular cation
D
bicarbonate is the principal intracellular anion.
Reference:
Both A and B seems to be correct
169.
In respiratory alkalosis, the primary abnormality is a/an
A
fall in pH
B
increase in plasma K+
C
increae in PCo2
D
fall in the PCo2.
Reference:
170.
Paradoxic aciduria may be seen in the following conditions except
A
a. K+ deficiency
B
b. Prolonged treatment with steroids
C
c. Na+ deficiency
D
d. in Cushing Syndrome(hyper – corticism).
Reference:
171.
Within Physiological limits, increased venous return to the heart
A
increases cardiac output
B
decreased systemic blood pressure
C
decreased heart rate
D
decreases intra-thoracic pressure.
Reference:
Pg. 233 Ganong 22/e.
172.
Direct Fick method of measuring Cardiac output requires estimation of
A
O2 content of arterial blood
B
O2 consumption per unit time
C
Arteriovenous O2 difference
D
All of these.
Reference:
Pg. 570 Ganong 22/e.
173.
Hypovolemia due to hemorrhage is compensated by
A
a. ADH mechanism in the kidney.
B
b. Renin – angiotensin system
C
c. Both A and B
D
d. neither A nor B
Reference:
Pg. 245, 638 Ganong 22/e
174.
In the refracting system of the eye
A
the lens can double the refracting power of the eye during accomadation.
B
the back and front surfaces of lens contribute equally during accomadation
C
the bck surface of the lens contributes more to accomadation than the front.
D
the cornea causes more refraction than the lens.
Reference:
175.
On accommodation to a near object
A
papillary constriction occurs
B
increased anterior curvature of the lens occurs
C
convergence of the eyeball occurs
D
all of these.
Reference:
Pg – 153 Ganong 20/e
176.
The neuron responsible for Post-synaptic inhibition is
A
Sensory neuron
B
Golgi bottle neuron
C
Renshaw cell
D
Neuroglia
Reference:
Pg – 91 Ganong 20/e
177.
Cutaneous pain
A
can be caused by overstimulation of touch receptors
B
can be caused by excitation of receptors by chemicals released in injured tissue
C
can cause receptors to adapt to stimulation more quickly than touch receptors
D
transmission at spinal cord level is facilitated by opening of potassium channels in the postsynaptic membrane.
Reference:
178.
A patient who presents with an intention tremor, scanning speech, past pointing, and a ‘druken gait’, might be expected to have a lesion involving the
A
Cerebellum
B
medulla
C
cortical motor strip
D
basal ganglia
Reference:
179.
An aphasia is most likely to be associated with a lesion of
A
The hippocampus
B
Broca’s area
C
The parietal lobe
D
The limbic system
Reference:
180.
The most likely humoral mediator of painful sensation from most tissue is
A
acetylcholine
B
histamine
C
released by normal tissue following exposure to excess water
D
Bradykinin, a polypeptide released from uninjured tissue.
Reference:
181.
The diuretic agent which produces inhibition of Carbonic anhydrase is
A
Spironolactone
B
Acetazolamide
C
Mersalyl
D
Frusemide.
Reference:
Pg – 533 KD Tripathi Pharmacology
182.
The drug of choice for suppressing febrile convulsions is
A
a. Intramuscular Phenobarbitone
B
b. Intravenous Phenytoin
C
c. Rectal Diazepam
D
d. Oral Sodium Valproate.
Reference:
183.
In Parkinson’s disease, which of the following inhibits MAO –B , a major degradative pathway of dopamine?
A
Selegeline
B
Pergolide
C
Amantadine
D
Bromocryptine.
Reference:
Pg. 387 KD Tripathi Pharmacology.
184.
Which of the following statements is false concerning Rifampicin?
A
it does not stain contact lenses
B
it is mainly used in tuberculosis
C
It has relatively few adverse effects
D
it inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase.
Reference:
185.
Calcium channel blockers have all the following characters except
A
they block the L- type calcium channels.
B
they block the contraction of peripheral arterioles and reduce the peripheral resistance
C
they may worsen the congestive cardiac failure
D
they constrict coronary arteries and arterioles.
Reference:
Pg. 497 KD Tripathi Pharmacology.
186.
The following drugs are recommended for the treatmentof Acute gouty arthritis except
A
Colchicine
B
Indomethacin
C
Phenyl butazone
D
Aspirin
Reference:
Pg. 188 KD. Tripathi Pharmacology.
187.
Which of the following is called third generation Cephalosporin?
A
Cephalexin
B
Cefactor
C
Cefadroxil
D
Cefixime.
Reference:
Pg. 663 KD. Tripathi Pharmacology.
188.
The toxicity of digitalis is due to elevated cardiac
A
intracellular K+ level
B
intracellular Ca2+ level
C
extracellualar Ca2+ level
D
intracellular Na+ level
Reference:
189.
Which of the following is a false statement converning Buspirone?
A
shows cross-tolerance with benzodiazepines.
B
does not produce side effects associated with CNS depression
C
is a 5HT antagonist
D
has delayed onset of action.
Reference:
190.
Pencillin induced anaphylaxis is mediated by
A
IgM
B
IgE
C
sensitized T cells
D
none of these
Reference:
191.
Meniscal teat of the knee joint usually results from which of the following circumstances?
A
Compression
B
Hyperextension
C
Rotation in partial flexion
D
Rotation in full extension
Reference:
Pg. 360 Outline of Orthopedics. ADAMS 13/e.
192.
Structure lying in the lateral wall of cavernous sinus from above downwards are
A
Oculomotor nerve, Trochlear nerve, Ophthalmic nerve, Maxillary nerve.
B
Trochlear nerve, Oculomotor nerve, Ophthalmic nerve, Maxillary nerve.
C
Trochlear nerve, Ophthalmic nerve, Maxillary nerve, Oculomotor nerve.
D
Oculomotor nerve, Ophthalmic nerve, Maxillary nerve, Trochlear nerve
Reference:
193.
The thick filament of Sarcomere is
A
Actin
B
Myosin
C
Fibrin
D
Troponin.
Reference:
Pg. 67 Ganong 22/e.
194.
Right lung has
A
no horizontal fissure
B
cardiac notch
C
nine bronchopulmonary segements
D
an eparterial bronchus
Reference:
195.
Eustachian valve is present at the opening of
A
SVC
B
IVC
C
Coronary sinus
D
none of these
Reference:
Pg. 1000 Gray’s Anatomy 39/e.
196.
The strongest ligament of the body is
A
Iliofemoral lig.
B
Ischiofemoral lig.
C
Pubofemoral lig.
D
Ligamentum patellae.
Reference:
197.
Axillary tail of the breast contacts
A
Subscapular nodes
B
Pectoral nodes
C
Central nodes
D
Apical nodes
Reference:
198.
The following bones form the proximal row of carpal bones except
A
Lunate
B
Trapezium
C
Triquetral
D
Scaphoid
Reference:
199.
Sutures are variety of
A
Fibrous joints
B
Syndesmosis.
C
Synchondrosis
D
none of these.
Reference:
200.
Haversian system is present in
A
teeth
B
nail
C
cancellous bone
D
cortical bone.