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TNPSC - November 2009 Questions & Answers

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1.

Posterior interosseous nerve is a continuation of

A

superficial branch of radial nerve

B

dorsal branch of radial nerve

C

branch of median nerve

D

deep branch of radial nerve

Reference:

Pg.135 Chaurasia 4/e

2.

The muscle having intracapsular origin is

A

short head of biceps

B

long head of biceps

C

coracobrachialis

D

long head of triceps

Reference:

Pg.84 Chaurasia 4/e

3.

Winging of the scapula is due to the paralysis of

A

Rhomboids

B

Trapezius

C

Subscapularis

D

Serratus Anterior.

Reference:

Pg.47 Chaurasia 4/e

4.

In Crutch Paralysis, the most frequently affected nerve is

A

Median nerve

B

Radial nerve

C

Axillary nerve

D

Musculocutaneous nerve

Reference:

Pg.81 Chaurasia 4/e

5.

The origin of Lumbricoid is

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

B

Flexor digitorum superficialis

C

Flexor retinaculum

D

From metacarpals

Reference:

Pg.117 Chaurasia 4/e

6.

Trapezius is supplied by

A

Accesory nerve

B

Suprascapular nerve

C

Dorsal scapular nerve

D

Axillary nerve

Reference:

Pg.62 Chaurasia 4/e

7.

Axillary artery becomes brachial artery

A

while crossing the superior border of Teres major

B

while crossing the inferior border of Teres major

C

while crossing the inferior border of Pectoralis major

D

while crossing the inferior border of Teres minor

Reference:

Pg. 54 Chaurasia 4/e

8.

The floor iof Cubital fossa is formed by

A

Brachialis

B

Supinator

C

Both A and B

D

none of these

Reference:

Pg.91,92 Chaurasia 4/e

9.

The Deep fascia of thigh is called as

A

Fascia of Camper

B

Colles fascia

C

Scarpas fascia

D

Fascia lata

Reference:

10.

The director of Femoral hernia is

A

downwards, anterior and upwards

B

downwards, posterior and upwards

C

upwards, anterior and upwards

D

upwards, anterior and downwards

Reference:

11.

Lateral compartment of leg contains

A

peroneus tertius and tibialis anterior

B

peroneus brevis and peroneus longus

C

peronues brevis and peroneus tertius

D

peroneus longus and peroneuw terius

Reference:

12.

Structures related to Ischial spine are all except

A

nerve to obturator iexternus

B

nerve to obturator internus

C

internal pudental artery

D

pudental nerve

Reference:

13.

Caseating Granulomas are the hallmark of

A

Tuberculosis

B

Sarcoidosis

C

Rheumatoid arthritis

D

Xanthomas

Reference:

14.

Cell mediated immunity is good in

A

Tuberculoid Leprosy

B

Lepromatous Leprosy

C

Erythema Nodosum Leprosum

D

Histoid Leprosy

Reference:

15.

Lipofuschin is a pigment seen in

A

Hemochromatosis

B

Melanoma

C

Ageing

D

Hemosiderosis

Reference:

16.

Oppurtunistic infections are the hallmark of

A

Auto-immune disorders

B

Hypertension

C

Glomerulonephritis

D

AIDS

Reference:

17.

Bread and Butter appearance of the pericardium is seen in

A

TB pericarditis

B

Pyogenic pericarditis

C

Rheumatic pericarditis

D

Uremic pericarditis

Reference:

18.

One of the etiological factors for Emphysema is

A

Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency

B

Alpha feto protein

C

LDH deficiency

D

CPK deficiency

Reference:

19.

Gastric Carcinomas are associated with

A

Spirochetes

B

Tuberculosis

C

Syphilis

D

H.pylori infection

Reference:

20.

Aflatoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus is associated with the pathogenesis of

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

B

Cholangio carcinoma

C

Angiosarcoma of liver

D

Hepatic adenoma

Reference:

21.

Sunray appearance of X ray is seen in

A

Ewings sarcoma

B

Osteogenic sarcoma

C

Chondrosarcoma

D

Giant cell tumor of bone

Reference:

22.

Rodent Ulcer is

A

Squamous cell caricnoma

B

Sebaceous carcinoma

C

Basal cell carcinoma

D

Malignant melanoma

Reference:

23.

Most common childhood renal tumor is

A

Wilms tumor

B

Renal cell carcinoma

C

Clear cell carcinoma

D

Metanephric adenoma

Reference:

24.

Nil Lesion disease is

A

Acute Glomerulonephritis

B

RPGN - Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis

C

Lipoid Nephrosis

D

MPGN - Membrano Proliferative Glomerulonephritis

Reference:

25.

Hypoglycemic hormone is

A

Glucagon

B

Insulin

C

Growth hormone

D

Epinephrine

Reference:

26.

The storage form of fat is

A

Triacyl glycerol

B

Cholesterol

C

Acetyl CoA

D

Fatty acid

Reference:

27.

Niemann - Pick disese is due to deficiency of

A

Sphingomyelinase

B

Beta glucosidase

C

Beta Galactosidase

D

Alpha Glucosidase

Reference:

28.

Prostaglandins are synthesised from

A

Linoleic acid

B

Propionic acid

C

Arachidonic acidq

D

Butyric acid

Reference:

29.

All the statments about Apolipoprotein (A) are true except

A

decreased risk of heart disease

B

Apo (A) is linked covalently to Apo B - 100

C

80% of amino acids of Apo Lipo (A) is same as Plasminogen

D

slows down the break-down of blood clot that triggers heart attack

Reference:

30.

Stress hormone shows all the common features except

A

increased levels of TNF1, Glucagon, Cortisol, Catecholamines and Insulin

B

Insulin suppresses the ketone body synthesis in liver and stimulates hepatic lipogenesis

C

insulin resistance is promoted by counter - regulatory hormones

D

maximum utilisation of glucose by insulin sensitive tissues

Reference:

31.

In Pheochromocytoma, urine will have

A

FIGLU

B

VMA

C

SHIAA

D

Arginine

Reference:

32.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

Thyroxine inhibits the utilisation of Glucose

B

Insulin increases utilisation of Glucose

C

Glucagon promotes musle glycogenesis

D

Insulin inhibits lipogenesis from glucose

Reference:

33.

The rate of production of hormone that is higher during sleep is

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone

B

Growth hormone

C

Prolactin

D

Thyroxine

Reference:

34.

The principal extra-cellular buffering system of blood is

A

KHCO3 / H2CO3

B

NaHCO3 / H2CO3

C

Na2HPO4/ NaH2PO4

D

Protein buffer

Reference:

Pg.732 Ganong 22/e

35.

The absorption of fat is enhanced by the presence of

A

Bile salts

B

Bile pigments

C

Amino acids

D

all of these

Reference:

36.

LCAT activity is associated with which of the following Lipoprotein Complexes?

A

VLDL

B

Chylomicrons

C

IDL

D

HDL

Reference:

Pg.303 Ganong 22/e

37.

The conduction rate of cardiac impulse at AV node is

A

0.05m/sec

B

1 m/sec

C

4m/sec

D

5m/sec

Reference:

Pg.549 Ganong 22/e

38.

The nomral life span of a RBC in peripheral blood is about

A

20 days

B

120 days`

C

6 months

D

one year

Reference:

Pg. 532 Ganong 22/e

39.

During which stage of erythrpoiesis, dose the cell becomes polychromatophilic?

A

Pleuripotent stem cell

B

Early normoblast

C

Intermediate normoblast

D

Reticulocyte

Reference:

40.

The normal sperm count in an adult male is about

A

10000/ml

B

50000/ml

C

20 millions/ml

D

60 millions/ml

Reference:

Average Sperm count - 100 million/ml. Pg.427 Ganong 22/e

41.

The Glomus cells which perceive changes in arterial PO2 are present in

A

Carotid and Aortic bodies

B

Stretch receptors in the lung parenchyma

C

Stretch receptors in the walls of great vein

D

Utricle and saccule

Reference:

42.

The following are true of knee jerk except

A

receptor in golgi tendon organ

B

it is a monosynaptic reflex

C

response is extension of quadriceps

D

exaggerated in upper motor lesion

Reference:

43.

The day of ovulation in a 32 day cycle is

A

14 thday

B

16th day

C

18th day

D

20th day

Reference:

44.

Pain and temperature sensation is carried by

A

Dorsal column

B

Anterolateral spinothalamic tract

C

Spinocerebellar tract

D

Spinovestibular tract

Reference:

Pg. 142. Ganong 22/e

45.

Somatosensory Area II (SII) is located in the

A

Post central gyrus

B

Pre-central gyrus

C

Occipital gyrus

D

in the wall of Sylvian tissue

Reference:

Pg.139 Ganong 22/e

46.

Innocuous stimuli like touch which can cause pain are called as

A

Analgesia

B

Hyperalgesia

C

Allodynia

D

Causalgia

Reference:

Pg. 145 Ganong 22/e

47.

Control of Saccadic movements of the eye is located in the

A

Frontal cortex

B

Parietal cortex

C

Occipital cortex

D

Temporal cortex

Reference:

Pg. 169 Ganong 22/e

48.

The visual field defect seen in Pituitary tumor is

A

Complete loss of vision of both eyes

B

Bitemporal hemianopia

C

Homonymous hemianopia

D

Central scotoma

Reference:

Pg. 168 Ganong 22/e

49.

Specific test for Syphilis is

A

VDRL test

B

Kahn test

C

Reiter protein complement fixation test

D

Flourescent treponemal antibody test

Reference:

Pg.382 Paniker 7/e

50.

Coxsackie virus can be isolated by inoculating into

A

Sucking mice

B

adult mice

C

guinea pig

D

rabbit

Reference:

Pg.496 Paniker 7/e

51.

Lymphoid tissue is the site of latent infection for which of the following Herpes Viruss?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus Type I

B

Herpes Simplex Virus Type II

C

Cytomegalovirus

D

Epstein - Barr virus

Reference:

Pg. 476 Paniker 7/e

52.

The following tests can be used to monitor patients with Anti-retroviral therapy except

A

DNA PCR

B

RNA PCR

C

CD4 count

D

P24 antigen count

Reference:

53.

Trichophyton infects

A

only skin

B

only hair

C

only nails

D

skin, hair and nails

Reference:

Pg. 614 Paniker 7/e

54.

Only deep mycosis common in India is

A

Cryptococcosis

B

Blastomycosis

C

Paracoccidioidomycosis

D

Coccidioidomycosis

Reference:

55.

Which of the following is not a Free living amoeba?

A

Entamoeba hartmani

B

Acanthameba

C

Naegleria

D

Balamuthia mandrillaris

Reference:

56.

Intermediate host for Echinococcus granulosus is

A

dog

B

sheep

C

rodents

D

fox

Reference:

Pg. 150 Paniker Parasitology 6/e

57.

The parasitic disease that recently been eradicated from India is

A

Guinea worm

B

Filariasis

C

Balantidiasis

D

Kala - azar

Reference:

58.

Humans serve as definitive host for all of the following except

A

Taenia solium

B

Echinococcus granulosus

C

Taenia saginata

D

Hymenolepis nana

Reference:

Pg.150 Paniker Parasitology 6/e

59.

Which of the following statements is not correct in respect of Schistosomes?

A

Snails are intermediate host

B

All Schistosomes live in veins and venules

C

There is not effective treatment

D

Eggs are not operculated

Reference:

Pg.119,120 Paniker Parasitology 6/e

60.

Which one of the following is a vector for Japanese Encepahalitis?

A

Aedes aegypti

B

Anopeheles

C

Culex vishnuii

D

Haemophysalis spinigera

Reference:

61.

Morpine acts through which of the following receptors?

A

Sympathetic

B

Parasympathetic

C

Opioid

D

Dopaminergic

Reference:

62.

Which of the following is a pure opiod antagonist?

A

Nalorpine

B

Levallorphan

C

Naloxone

D

Nalbuphine

Reference:

63.

Paracetamol poisoning is treated by

A

Atropine

B

Neostigmine

C

N - acetyl cysteine

D

Flumazenil

Reference:

64.

Low dose of Aspirin is used in Post-myocardial infarction - the mechanism of action is

A

inhibits PG I2

B

stimulates PG I2

C

inhibits TX A2

D

stimulates TX A2

Reference:

65.

Lithium is used in the following except

A

acute manic episodes

B

recurrect neuropsychiatric illness

C

cancer chemotherapy inuduced leucopenia

D

barbiturate poisoning

Reference:

Pg.436 Tripathi 6/e

66.

Levodopa produces the following adverse effects except

A

Postural hypotension

B

Cardiac arrhythmias

C

Exacerbation of angina

D

Renal failure

Reference:

Pg.417,418 Tripathi 6/e

67.

Diabetic ketoacidosis is corrected by

A

Gliclazide

B

Glipizide

C

Regular insulin

D

Metformin

Reference:

Pg.263 Tripathi 6/e

68.

Which of the following Steoids is not long acting?

A

Cortisone

B

Dexamethsone

C

Betamethasone

D

Paramethasone

Reference:

Pg.282 Tripathi 6/e

69.

Which of the following is a Heparin antagonist?

A

Desferrioxamine

B

Protamine sulfate

C

Copper sulfate

D

Disodium edetate

Reference:

70.

Which of the following drugs does not interfere with platelet function?

A

Sulfinpyrazone

B

Ticlopidine

C

Dipyridamole

D

Urokinase

Reference:

Pg.606, 607 Tripathi 6/e

71.

Folic acid is used in the following conditions except

A

Megaloblastic anemia

B

Methotrexate toxicity

C

Sodium valproate toxicity

D

Citrovorum factor rescue in certain malignancies treated with high doses of Methotrexate

Reference:

Pg.591,592 Tripathi 6/e

72.

Which of the following is dissociative anesthetic agent?

A

Tricholoethylene

B

Etomidate

C

Ketamine

D

Cyclopropane

Reference:

Pg.376 Tripathi 6/e

73.

BAL is used in poisoning of

A

Morphine

B

Mercury

C

Aconite

D

Phenol

Reference:

Pg.866 Tripathi 6/e

74.

Erythsim is seen in poisoning of

A

Hg

B

Pb

C

Zn

D

As

Reference:

Pg.472 Narayan Reddy 26/e

75.

In India, Euthanasia has got

A

legal sanction

B

no legal sanction

C

legal sanction to certain sepcial condition

D

legal sanction only in cancer and AIDS

Reference:

Pg.40,41 Narayan Reddy 26/e

76.

Macewans sign is seen in

A

Lead poisoning

B

Ethanol poisoning

C

Copper poisoning

D

Arsenic poisoning

Reference:

Pg.497 Narayan Reddy 26/e

77.

What is Ichthytoxin?

A

Poisoning by Sea fishes

B

Poisoning due to sea weeds

C

Poisoning by alcohol

D

Poisoning by scorpion

Reference:

Pg.559 Narayan Reddy 26/e

78.

Testamentory capacity is related to

A

right to vote

B

will

C

criminal responsibility

D

deposing of evidence

Reference:

Pg.417 Narayan Reddy 26/e

79.

At the age of 12, total number of teeth is

A

12

B

20

C

24

D

25

Reference:

Pg.60 Narayan Reddy 26/e

80.

Hashish is produced from

A

leaves

B

flowers

C

stem

D

resin exudate

Reference:

Pg.528 Narayan Reddy 26/e

81.

Catamite is related to

A

sodomy

B

bigamy

C

kleptomania

D

rape

Reference:

Pg.359 Narayan Reddy 26/e

82.

Thanatology deals with

A

injuries

B

death will all its aspects

C

thermal burns

D

death due to murder

Reference:

Pg.117 Narayan Reddy 26/e

83.

The cell for DNA analysis is taken from all except

A

Fibroblast

B

Lymphocyte

C

Monocyte

D

Amniocyte

Reference:

84.

All of the following are amyl phosphates except

A

Folidol

B

Parathion

C

Diazinon

D

Malathion

Reference:

85.

Road Safety is no accident - was the world health slogan for year

A

2007

B

2006

C

2005

D

2004

Reference:

86.

When a person has an intense desire to use a chemical substance is called

A

Drug abuse

B

Drug addiction

C

Habituation

D

Medication

Reference:

87.

Among the given oils/fats which is the most harmful to humans?

A

Soyaben oil

B

Coconut oil

C

Ghee

D

Vanaspati

Reference:

88.

Demonstration is a health education method best suited for teaching

A

Cognitive domain

B

Affective domain

C

Psychomotor domain

D

Visual domain

Reference:

89.

Currently the name of the national programme dealing with malaria is

A

National Malaria Eradication Programme (NMEP)

B

National Antimalaria Programee (NAMP)

C

Modified Plan of Operation (MPO)

D

National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP).

Reference:

90.

The ultimate aim of all family planning programmes like RCH is to attain

A

NRR of 1

B

Life expectancy of more than 65 years

C

IMR less than 60

D

CBR of 20/1000

Reference:

91.

The strategy for controlling the spread of HIV is

A

Prevention of Mother to Child transmission (PMCT)

B

Prevention of Parent to Child transmision (PPCT)

C

Post coital therapy (PCT)

D

Maternal and Child therapy (MCT).

Reference:

92.

Following a disaster, the first step in health care is

A

give mouth to mouth breathing to the dying

B

triage is done

C

transport all patients to the hospital

D

mobilise all specialists to the site.

Reference:

93.

The first aid to be given to a case of Post - partum hemorrhge before transportation is

A

establish airway

B

give artificial breathing

C

start Iv line with a crystalloid solution

D

inform the obstetrician.

Reference:

94.

Mode is

A

type of study in experimental epidemiology

B

geometric mean

C

most frequently occuring value in a distribution of data

D

less frequently occuring value in a distribution of date

Reference:

95.

In a Diabetic patient underdoing surgery which are the correct statements? I. Switch over to soluble insulin on day of surgery. II. Oral hypoglycemic agent is the drug of coice III. Monitoring plasma potassium is absolutely essential IV. 1 - 4 hourly blood sugar estimation is mandatory in post - operative period.

A

I and II are correct

B

I and III are correct

C

I, II and III are correct

D

I, III and IV are correct

Reference:

96.

A Sequestrum is a

A

piece of dead skin

B

piece of dead bone

C

piece of dead soft tissue

D

reatined swab

Reference:

97.

What is Colles fracture?

A

Fracture of clavicle

B

Fracture of distal radius

C

Fracture of scaphoid

D

Fracture of ankle joint

Reference:

98.

In Paronychia, I. infection of hand II. careless trimming of nail III. antiviral treatment is essential IV. drainage of pus is done.

A

I and III are correct

B

I, II, and IV are correct

C

I, II and IV are correct

D

all are correct

Reference:

Pg.525 Bailey & Love 24/e.

99.

Regarding Bursitis, which of the following statements is true? I. Rarely a pathogenic organism is isolated II. Can occur in a Psoas infection III. Excision of indurated Bursal wall IV. Bursa helps to increase the frictional forces between the tissues.

A

I, II and III are true

B

I and IV are true

C

I, II and IV are true

D

all are true

Reference:

100.

Regarding amputation of lower limb which of the following statements are true? I. Ideal length of above knee stump should not be less than 20cms II. Limb fitting facilities are limited, then to consider symes amputation III. Symes amputation is suitable for ischemia athersoscerotic limb because of a good healing of flap. IV. Below knee amputation is preferred for emotional mobility. Of these

A

I and II are true

B

I, II and Iv are true

C

I, II and III are true

D

I and III are true

Reference:

Pg.941,942 Bailey & Love 24/e.

101.

Regareding infection of Flexor tendon (Kanawels sign) I. Swollen finger held in flexion II. Pain on passive extension III. Flexor sheath tenderness IV. Usually caused by staphylococcus or streptococcus organism. Of these

A

I and II are correct

B

III and Iv are correct

C

I , II and III are correct

D

All are correct

Reference:

102.

After amputaton of the limb , which one is to be considered? I. Immediately artificial limb is rocommded II. After mobility progression, use of artificial inflatable limb is recommended III. Post - amputation exercise are essential for muscle power IV. use of crutches. Of these

A

I and II are correct

B

II and III are correct

C

III and IV are correct

D

II and IV are correct

Reference:

103.

Indication of renal transplantation is all except

A

Polycystic kidney disease

B

SLE

C

Chronic Glomerulonephritis

D

Renal cell carcinoma

Reference:

104.

Maternal mortality is defined as number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 in

A

live births

B

live births and still births

C

live births and abortion

D

pregnancies including births, abortion and ectopic prognancies

Reference:

105.

All cardio-vascular changes occur during pregnancy except

A

increase in cardiac output by 30 - 40%

B

increase in red cell colume by 5%

C

increase in plasma volume by 40 - 45 %

D

increase in heart rate by 10 - 15/min.

Reference:

106.

Coagulation disorders may complicate in all of the following except

A

Abruptio placentae

B

Placenta praevia

C

Amniotic fluid embolism

D

Septic abortion

Reference:

107.

Barier method of contraception used by the woman include all the following except

A

Diaphragm

B

Cervial cap

C

Female condom

D

Intra - uterine device

Reference:

108.

MTP act does not allow termination of pregnancy beyond

A

12 weeks of pregnancy

B

16 weeks of pregnancy

C

18 weeks of pregnancy

D

20weeks of pregnancy

Reference:

109.

Ultrasound detection of fetal heart sound can be earliest possible at

A

5 weeks

B

7 - 8 weeks

C

10 weeks

D

12 weeks

Reference:

110.

The range of frequency of most most medical diagnostic ultrasound equipment is

A

`1 - 10 MHz

B

11 - 20 MHz

C

21 - 30 MHz

D

31 - 40 MHz

Reference:

111.

Uncommon change to occur in Myoma is`

A

Calcification

B

Red degenration

C

Malignant change

D

Hyaline change

Reference:

112.

Investigation of choice in a diabetic mother with a doubtful abnormal fetus in first trimester is

A

Ultrasound

B

Glycosylated hemoglobin

C

Amniocentesis

D

Chorionic villus biopsy

Reference:

113.

Red degeneration of fibroid is associated with

A

Pregnancy

B

Aseptic infarction

C

Thrombosis

D

Leucocytosis

Reference:

114.

For a pregnant woman at lesion with Hemoglobin 8.5 gm the treatment of choice is

A

parenteral cross

B

oral cross

C

packed cell

D

whole blood

Reference:

115.

Fungal vulvitis is associated with

A

Tuberculosis

B

Lymphoma

C

Diabetes

D

Toxemia of pregnancy

Reference:

116.

Salivary calculus is more common in

A

Parotid gland

B

Submandibular gland

C

Sublingual gland

D

Minor salivary glands

Reference:

117.

The most common benign neoplasm of salivary gland is

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

B

Warthins tumor

C

Monomorphic adenoma

D

Benign cyst

Reference:

118.

The commonest organisms causing acute otitis media are following except

A

Strreptococcus penumoniae

B

Hemophilus influenza

C

Morexella catarrhalis

D

Pseudomonas

Reference:

119.

Treatment for Serous otitis media is

A

Myringotomy

B

Myringotomy and grommet insertion

C

Anti-histamine and nasal decongestion

D

none of these

Reference:

120.

The most dreaded complication of tympanomastoidectomy is

A

injury to cartilage of pinna

B

injury to facial nerve

C

injury to tegmen

D

injury to Lat . sinus

Reference:

121.

The important landmark to identify the GEnicualte ganglion is

A

Lateral semicircular canal

B

Processus cochleariformis

C

Pyramid

D

Eustachian tube orifice

Reference:

122.

Nerve supply to Stapedius muscle is

A

mandibular nerve

B

tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve

C

facial nerve

D

none of these

Reference:

123.

Gradinegos syndrome is having following features except

A

Otorrhea

B

facial pain

C

diplopia

D

facial weakness

Reference:

124.

Cardiomegaly resulting in left vocal cord paralysis is called

A

Tapia syndrome

B

Ortners syndrome

C

Gradinego syndrome

D

Avellis syndrome

Reference:

125.

Left recurrent laryngeal nerve is paralysed more often than (R) Rec. Laryngeal nerve due to its long course. The percentage is

A

2:1

B

3:1

C

4:1

D

5:1

Reference:

126.

Classical features of Eczema are all except

A

Itching

B

Papules

C

Vesicles

D

nodules

Reference:

127.

Possible etiological rold for Seborrheic dermatitis is

A

Streptococci

B

Straphylococci

C

Dermatophytes

D

Pityrosporon orale

Reference:

128.

Which of the following statements is true for Pityriasis Alba?

A

a fungal infection

B

a form vitiligo

C

drug reaction

D

non-specific dermatitis of unknown origin

Reference:

129.

Which one of the following is false regarding clinical signs of irritant dermatitis?

A

itching

B

papules and vesicles

C

oozing

D

follows a week after the contact

Reference:

130.

Vitligo is associated with all of the following except

A

Thyroid disease

B

Diabetes mellitus

C

Acromegaly

D

Addisons disease

Reference:

131.

Pathognomonic finding in Pemphigus vulgaris is

A

inflammatory infilatrate around appendages

B

basophlic degeneratioin

C

supra basal bulla

D

pigmentaly incontinence

Reference:

132.

For Dermatitis herpetiformis, the following are true except

A

itching

B

papules and vesicles

C

severe oral involvement

D

gluten sensitive enteropathy

Reference:

133.

Drug of choice for Dermatitis Herpetiformis is

A

Sulphonamides

B

Dapsone

C

Steroids

D

Methotrexate

Reference:

134.

For Pityriasis rosea, the following are true except

A

viral role suggested

B

mother patch

C

oral scaly eruption

D

associated with Rosacea

Reference:

135.

Following drugs are used in the treatment of Psoriasis except

A

Methotrexate

B

Retinoids

C

Ketoconazole

D

Keratolytics

Reference:

136.

Which one of the following does not match with Frontal lobe syndrome?

A

Perseverence of speech

B

Loss of general intellectual abilities

C

Dysinhibition

D

Confusional state

Reference:

137.

The features of Temporal lobe dysfunction does not include

A

Psychotic state, mood change

B

Depersonalisation, De Javu

C

Autoscopic experience

D

Cortical blindness

Reference:

138.

Lifetime risk of developing Schizophrenia in general populations is

A

about 1%

B

about 5%

C

about 7%

D

about 10%

Reference:

139.

Correct estimates of lifetimes prevalence of bipolar disorder - II are not known but it is thought to be

A

less than 1%

B

less than 2%

C

less than 5%

D

less than 10%

Reference:

140.

It is estimated that married woman may have arousal sexual disorder in the range of

A

around 10%

B

around 16%

C

around 33%

D

around 2%

Reference:

141.

The incidence and prevalence of sexual pain disorders such as Dyspreunia and Vaginismus are

A

about 65%

B

about 35%

C

about 15%

D

unknown

Reference:

142.

All perceptions in the absence of an adequate external stimulus are called

A

illusions

B

hallucinations

C

delusions

D

depersonalisation

Reference:

143.

Culture influence all the following except

A

experience fo symptoms

B

indians used to report them

C

decisions about treatment

D

therapeutic efficacy of the drug

Reference:

144.

Following are symptoms of OCD except

A

contamination

B

pathalogical doubt

C

ritual washing

D

delusions

Reference:

145.

Mood stabilisers include all except

A

Lithium

B

Sodium valproate

C

Crabamazepine

D

Haloperidol

Reference:

146.

Which is the correct statement regarding somatisation disorder?

A

Lifetime prevalence about 5%

B

usually affects men more than women

C

reportedly rare in low socio-economic classes

D

symptoms usually begin in middle age

Reference:

147.

The right symptom for catatonic schizophrenia is

A

delusion

B

irrelevant talk

C

waxy flexibility

D

auditory hallucinations

Reference:

148.

The extraocular muscles arise from

A

Superior orbital fissure

B

Annulus of Zinn

C

Roof orbit

D

Orbital fascia

Reference:

149.

Abducent nerve supplies the

A

Medial Rectus Muscle

B

Lateral Rectus Muscle

C

Inferior Rectus Muscle

D

Superior Rectus Muscle

Reference:

150.

Retitnitis pigmentosa comprises

A

bone corpuscular pigmentation

B

attentuated retinal vessels

C

waxy pallor of optic disc

D

all of these

Reference:

151.

A white pupillary reflex in the eye is called

A

Leucocoria

B

Anisocoria

C

Anisometropia

D

Anisokonia

Reference:

152.

Conventional lenses (hard lenses) are made of

A

plastic material

B

Polymethyl methacrylate

C

silicone

D

Collagen

Reference:

153.

Corneal ulcer means

A

a discontinuity in the epithelium of the cornea

B

a break in the endothelium of cornea

C

a defect in the Bowmanns membrane

D

a defect in the stroma

Reference:

154.

Keratoconus consists which of the following factors?

A

Vogts Bands

B

Thinning of cornea

C

Ectasia of cornea

D

all of these

Reference:

155.

Aphakia means

A

absence of the normal lens

B

absence of the retina

C

absence of the Y sutures

D

absence of the zonules

Reference:

156.

Anesthetic given during cataract extraction in adults is

A

Peribulbar injection

B

general anesthesia

C

ketamine

D

spinal anesthesia

Reference:

157.

Pulled elbow is

A

subluxation of elbow joint

B

subluxation of infra-radio ulnar joint

C

subluxation of supra radio ulnar joint

D

subluxation of head of radius into annular ligament

Reference:

158.

Thickest nerve in the body is

A

Femoral nerve

B

Medial nerve

C

Sciatic nerve

D

UInar nerve

Reference:

159.

Recurrent dislocation is common in

A

Ankle joint

B

Hip joint

C

Knee joint

D

Shoulder joint

Reference:

160.

Myostitis ossificans is common in

A

Elbow joint

B

Knee joint

C

Shoulder joint

D

Wrist joint

Reference:

161.

Bony ankylosis is the end result of

A

Septic arthritis

B

Tuberculous arthritis

C

Fungal arthritis

D

Rheumatoid arthritis

Reference:

162.

Ring Sequestrum is seen in

A

Typhoid osteomyelitis

B

Amputation stump

C

Chronic osteomyeltis

D

Tuberculosis osteomyelitis

Reference:

163.

Smiths fracture is

A

distal one third of radius with volar displacement

B

radial styloid fracture

C

rim fracture of distal radius

D

distal one third of radius with dorsal displacement.

Reference:

164.

Common site(s) for avascular necrosis is/are

A

head of femur

B

proximal pole of scaphoid

C

body of talus

D

all of the above

Reference:

165.

Tennis elbow is

A

medial epicondylitis

B

lateral epiconydlitis

C

lateral condyle fracure

D

stiff elbow

Reference:

166.

Caries Spine commonly occurs at

A

upper cervical spine

B

lower cervical spine

C

dorsolumbar spine

D

lower lumbar spine

Reference:

167.

suxamethonium should not be used in

A

hypokalemia

B

hyperkalemia

C

hypocalcemia

D

hypercalcemia

Reference:

168.

Thiopentone sodium is an ultra short acting drug because

A

high fat solubility

B

redistribution of drug

C

rapid metabolism

D

rapid excretion

Reference:

169.

In epidural anesthesia, the local anesthetic is deposited in

A

intrathecal space

B

subrachnoid space

C

extradural space

D

paravertebral space

Reference:

170.

Post spinal headache is caused by

A

early ambulation of the patient

B

head down tilt of the bed

C

dehydration

D

CSF leak

Reference:

171.

Nitrous oxide comes in

A

orange cylinder

B

blue cylinder

C

black cylinder

D

red cylinder

Reference:

172.

For spinal anesthesia, the usual space chosen is

A

below L4

B

above L1

C

T12 - L2

D

L2 - L4.

Reference:

173.

The non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade is reversed by

A

Atropine

B

Neostigmine

C

Nifedipine

D

Atenolol

Reference:

174.

The severe form of local anesthetic toxicity is manifested as

A

cardiac arrhtymias

B

generalised convulsions

C

bronchospasm

D

tachycardia

Reference:

175.

Brachial plexus block is an example of

A

Topical block

B

Local infiltration block

C

Field block

D

Nerve plexus block

Reference:

176.

To dry up tracheobronchial secretions, the drug used as premedication is

A

Adrenaline

B

Atropine sulphate

C

Neostigmine

D

Theophylline

Reference:

177.

In which of the following organs is Erythropoietin primarily produced

A

Bone marrow

B

Liver

C

Kidney

D

Spleen

Reference:

178.

Which of the following globin chain combinations is present in Hemoglobin F

A

Alpha 2 gamma 2

B

Alpha 2 beta 2

C

Alpha 2 delta 2

D

Alpha 2 epsilon 2

Reference:

179.

Polycythemia may be found in each of the following except

A

cyanotic congeital heart disease

B

Downs syndrome infant

C

Emphysema

D

Juvenile diabetes

Reference:

180.

All of the following chemotherapeutic agents can cause bone marrow depression except

A

Methotrexate

B

Actinomycin D

C

Asparaginase

D

Cyclophosphamide

Reference:

181.

Acute Bacterial Pyelonephritis

A

is usually ascending in origin

B

is usually hematogenous in origin

C

in found only in those with ostructive disease

D

is caused by ususual strain of E.coli

Reference:

182.

Which of the following syndromes may have blue sclera as a manifestation?

A

Ehler- Danlos syndrome

B

Turners syndrome

C

Osteogenesis imperfecta

D

all of these

Reference:

183.

Kartageners syndrome is characterised by all of the following except

A

Situs inversus

B

Bronchiectasis

C

Chronic sinusitis

D

Choanal atresia

Reference:

184.

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is associated with all of the following except

A

Herpes Zoster

B

Neurosensory deafness

C

Facial paralysis

D

Bullous myringitis

Reference:

185.

Which of the following in regard to eruption of teeth is abnormal. ?

A

first molar at four months

B

first tooth at six months

C

first tooth at 8 months

D

first tooth at 16 months

Reference:

186.

All are caused by RNA viruses except

A

HIV

B

Dengue

C

Herpangina

D

Erythema Infectiousum

Reference:

187.

Match List I with List II and select your answer from the codes given below List I List II a) EHEC 1. Urinary stone formation b) Cl.difficile 2. GBS c) Proteus 3. Hemolytic uremic syndrome d) Campylobacter jejuni 4. Antibiotic induced colits Codes

A

a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

B

a-3, b-4m c-1, d-2

C

a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.

D

a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2.

Reference:

188.

Consider the following statements Assertion (A) : ACyclovir is effective in H.simplex and H.zoster infections. Reason (R) : These viruses have thymidine kinase enzyme. Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below

A

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

B

Both (A) and (R) are true , but (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

C

(A) is true, but is (R) is false

D

(A) is false, but (R) is true

Reference:

189.

Consider the following statements regarding Malaria: I. Blackwater fever is due to hemolysis of both parasitized and unparasitised RBCs II. Hypoglycemia can occur III. Tropical splenomegaly patients have low IgM levels IV. Malaria can be transmitted by blood transfusion Of the statements

A

I and II are correct

B

I,II and III are correct

C

I, II, and IV are correct

D

all are correct

Reference:

190.

Following can be features of HIV itself except

A

isolated thrombocytopenia

B

nephropathy

C

persistent generalised lymphadenopathy

D

cerebral abscess

Reference:

191.

All the following statements are true except

A

DNA probe is used in southern blot technique

B

Sex determining region is present in X chromosome

C

Sickle cell disease is an example of point mutation

D

Genetic anticiption occurs in Huntingtons disease

Reference:

192.

Match List I corrrectly with List II and select your answer using the codes given below: List I List II a) Cystic fibrosis 1. X - linked recessive b) Neurofibromatosis 2. Autosomal recessive c) Retinitis pigmentosa 3. Autosomal dominant d) Fabrys disease 4. X- linked dominant codes:

A

a - 3, b - 4, c - 2, d - 1

B

a - 4, b - 2 , c - 3, d - 1

C

a- 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1

D

a - 2, b - 3, c - 1, d - 4

Reference:

193.

All the following statments are true except

A

Multiple sclerosis can be treated with IFN - beta

B

C1 esterase inhibitor dieficiency causes angioedema

C

Most abundant immunoglobulin in the body is IgM

D

CD 8+ cells recognize cells bearing MHC Class I molecules

Reference:

194.

Consider the following statments: I. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with HLA B 27 II. Complement C5-9 deficiency predisposes to clostridial infections III. DiGeorge anomaly is a T cell immunodeficieny disorder IV. Adenosine deaminase deficiency caused combined T and B cell deficiency. Of the statements

A

I and II are correct

B

I, III and IV are correct

C

I, II and III are correct

D

all are correct

Reference:

195.

Match List I correctly with List II and select your answers using the codes given below: List I List II a) Vitamin B6 1. Ataxia b) Vitamin E 2. Cardiomyopathy c) Selenium 3. Polyneuropathy d) Chromium 4. Glucose intolerance Codes:

A

a - 3, b - 1, c - 2, d - 4

B

a - 3, b - 1, c - 4, d - 2

C

a - 1, b - 3, c - 2, d - 4

D

a - 1, b - 3, c - 4, d - 2

Reference:

196.

Metabolic syndrome X consists of all except

A

High blood pressure

B

high LDL level

C

high HDL level

D

increased Abdominal circumference

Reference:

197.

Clinical features of Sepsis include all except

A

high systemic vascular resistance

B

bounding pulse

C

coagulopathy

D

hyperglycemia

Reference:

198.

In adults, the spinal cord extends from the level of Foramen magnum to the level of

A

the lower border of first lumber vertebra

B

the upper border of fourth lumbar vertebra

C

the lower border of second lumbar vertebra

D

the lower border of third lumbar vertebra

Reference:

199.

Which one of the following cels is not an example for neuroglial cells

A

Astrocytes

B

Oligodentrocytes

C

Microglial cells

D

Schwann cells

Reference:

200.

Motor Speech Area of Broca is

A

area 40 and 41

B

area 3,1 and 2

C

area 18 and 19

D

area 44 and 45

Reference: